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Old 01-16-2010, 09:04 PM
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Default IMBRA question

Hello.

I can't find an optimal place to put this question, so I'll put it here.

According to this web page:

IMBRA, HR3402 questionaire

If I don't use a compliant marriage broker to meet my fiance, then my K1 visa gets denied, automatically, because I met via a "black market" broker, for lack of a better term.

Is that true, or is he just trying to scare me into using HIS service? I've read the ENTIRE text of the International Marriage Broker Regulation Act (it's not a very big statute to read; it's a subsection of a much larger act), and it never says anything about how I should get denied to sponsor my fiance's visa because my BROKER didn't conduct the background checks.

I wouldn't be this concerned if it weren't for the fact that there are very few sites that seem to comply with IMBRA's criminal background check regulations. I have no problem telling the woman that I'm not a criminal (I've got nothing to hide), but why should I be denied the right to marry her, forever and ever, with no recourse, since the damage has already been done, because my BROKER messed up?

The only negative consequence I've read in this act is that the broker has to pay a fine if he doesn't conduct the background checks. Whoopdie doo! What does that have to do with me?! As long as I get the visa for my soul mate, I could care less what happens to my broker; he's done his job as far as I'm concerned.

Is my intuition correct? If that web page is true, can you refer me to the exact clause that states that meeting via a non-compliant broker constitutes an automatic visa rejection?
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Old 01-18-2010, 07:50 PM
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Oh come on! One hundred and nineteen views and not one reply! What's the matter? Cat got your tongue?
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Old 01-18-2010, 07:51 PM
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EDIT: Sorry, double post.
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